Not really. Spelling wasn't standardised and typesetters had many idiosyncrasies and were inclined to do their own thing*
Names were not spelled consistently in Shakepeare's time. It seems remarkable to us, but there is lots of evidence for this. Ben Jonson's name was sometimes spelled "Jonson" and sometimes spelled "Johnson." Christopher Marlowe's name was spelled many different ways, including as "Marley."
Anti-Stratfordians usually argue that the name was most commonly spelled with an "e" in London and without an "e" in Stratford, and then argue that this is evidence that there must have been two entirely separate people - the one in Stratford named "Shakspeare" and another guy in London called "Shakespeare." But for different spellings to be evidence of different people, you would have to establish that most people's names were spelled consistently. BUT THE OPPOSITE IS TRUE.
Anti-Strats also like to argue that Shakespeare's name sometimes appeared with a hyphen, and a hyphen is evidence (according to them) that the hyphenated name was really a pseudonym, but there are numerous examples of names with hyphens that were NOT pseudonyms - and in any event, Shakespeare's name, used in connection with the plays, was usually spelled without a hyphen. Furthermore, Shakespeare's famous will shows Shakespeare of Stratford was involved with the actors in the King's Men, so it would be a very remarkable coincidence if the William Shakespeare of Stratford and the William Shakespeare of the King's Men were different people. Some Anti-Strats also argue that the fact that Shakespeare's signatures appear to have different spellings is evidence that he is illiterate because he could not spell his own name, which does not make a lot of sense. Claiming you can identify illiteracy by analysing handwriting is unique to Oxfordianism. *As they still do today.